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Would it be correct to say most UK deaths occurred when few or no people were vaccinated?
Presumably when you take into account infections and vaccinations we must be getting towards the tail end of who can still get it in the UK, or at least, who can get it badly.
But, who knows….
UK population - 68 million, having passed through the 'third wave'
SA population - 60 million, just passed through the 'third' wave period
UK, fairly observant of regulations and precautions; healthy living conditions
SA, hardly observant of laws, let alone regulations; not so healthy living conditions
% population vaccinated against Covid
UK - 46million (67%) 1st dose
SA - 4million (less than 7%) 1st dose
UK - 37million (54%) 2nd dose
SA - 1.1million (less than 2%) 2nd dose
UK deaths - 129,000
SA deaths - 69,000
deaths per 100,000
UK - 194
SA - 119
i know you can do anything you like with numbers, but how would the above be best interpreted - where's the vaccine dividend? (12% of teachers in SA have refused to be vaccinated)
i have read that the many people here being treated for TB and AIDS are somehow better protected from Covid, but while they are many, they do not run into the millions needed to skew the above numbers.
i don't get it...but i *know* there will be someone here who thinks that they do, (whether they do or not) and will explain...
and in passing
murders per 100.000
UK - 1.2
SA - 35.6